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Matt Jesuele's avatar

Using strikes of $80 and $120:

Collared stock: min payoff $80, max payoff $120

Call spread: min payoff $0, max payoff $40

Both payoffs increase linearly between $80 and $120.

So the collar should cost more than the spread since it's the same shaped payoff but shifted up by $80:

collar = spread + gap

Expanding the terms:

put80 + stock - call120 = call80 - call120 + gap

Cancelling the short calls and re-arranging:

gap = stock + put80 - call80

By put-call parity, that right side is just PV($80): if price at expiry is below $80 you exercise your put to sell your shares at $80; if it's above, your shares are called away for $80. No matter what happens, you end up with $80 at expiration.

So, finally,

collar = spread + PV($80)

We could have also just reasoned that "same payoff shape but shifted up by $80" by no-arbitrage gives us a gap of PV($80).

So the "varying amount" is just a bond price which moves with rates and expiry. The deferred-rate highs you flag as pushing forwards up are the same r shrinking this gap.

Fun puzzle.

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