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> (value of put spread) / (distance between strikes) ~ P(stock expiring below midpoint of strikes)

While the pic/chart in this post containing discrete probabilities/weighted payoffs is legit, I was thinking about this more yesterday and believe there's an easier way to explain it.

(I didn't fully follow it/understand how this conclusion came about when I first read it at https://www.globalcapital.com/article/28mwrr0lap7g5gyuamznl/derivatives/option-prices-imply-a-probability-distribution)

Building off of part 1 of ur post:

P(stock expires below short strike) = x

P(stock expires between strikes) = y

x * (width of strikes) + y * (avg payoff when stock is between strikes) = (value of put spread)

=> x * (width of strikes) + y * ((width of strikes) / 2) = (value of put spread)

=> x + (y / 2) = (value of put spread) / (width of strikes)

Assuming probability stock can land between strikes is equally distributed.. (y/2) happens to be probability stock finishes below mid point. (Within the strikes)

x + y/2 = cumulative probability stock finishes below mid point of strike.

I believe because above assumption is almost true and not quite, is why the equation also is approximately true.

Awesome post.. thanks for connecting the dots for me!

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That sounds like the derivation I forgot thank you! Awesome work.

I appreciate that you thought about this post hard!

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On the following statement:

If the 100/85 put spread is $5.17 and its maximum value is $15, then if you buy it, you are getting 9.83 to 5.17 odds or 2.9 to 1.

Would that be 2.9 to 1 or 1.9 to 1?

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1.9...great catch!

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